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Destroyer of Ignorance
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2,988 Posts
Discussion Starter #1
I was reading an article by Devvy Kidd and I thought she raised a really interesting point ...

"Was the procedure used to bring this monstrosity up for a vote constitutional? If the original bill failed in the House, how could the unlawfully seated senate originate a bill of expenditure? Why would people ask this specific question"?

U.S. Constitution, Art. 1, Sec. 7: All bills for raising revenue shall originate in the House of Representatives; but the Senate may propose or concur with amendments as on other Bills.
What do you think. I think she may very well be on to something here. Here's the link to the whole article.

http://www.newswithviews.com/Devvy/kidd400.htm
 

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Destroyer of Ignorance
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2,988 Posts
Discussion Starter #3
Oops ... Admin, feel free to send this thread to the bowels of the internet, thank you.
 
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