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I was reading an article by Devvy Kidd and I thought she raised a really interesting point ...

"Was the procedure used to bring this monstrosity up for a vote constitutional? If the original bill failed in the House, how could the unlawfully seated senate originate a bill of expenditure? Why would people ask this specific question"?

U.S. Constitution, Art. 1, Sec. 7: All bills for raising revenue shall originate in the House of Representatives; but the Senate may propose or concur with amendments as on other Bills.
What do you think. I think she may very well be on to something here.
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Watchin tha world go by
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8,134 Posts
agree, but this bunch in DC abandoned any pretense of following that "piece of paper" (GW) a long time ago--- like since FDR, or maybe Wilson
 
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