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What I mean is...let's say John Doe sees hyperinflation coming. He has a $100,000 mortgage, but he buys another $100,000 worth of land, and gets the seller to finance at 100%. Hyperinflation happens, to the tune of 3-to-1. Now, John gets 3 times as many dollars, but his mortgage stays the same.

So the gooberment revalues at 10-to-1. The original $10 bills are now worth a new $1 bill. Because his notes were written for year 2010 bills, can he pay them off for a total of $200,000 (original bills), and does this correspond to $20,000 of Revalued Bills? Or does he need to cough up $200,000 in revalued bills to satisfy the note?

Essentially, does the lender get ten times as much money? Is this how the government will protect their banking friends and try to stave off the collapse of the fiat dollar? Does John Doe take it in the proverbial rear, or does he get a windfall for his prudent investment n land?